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CETP Exams Practice Questions

The focus of the practice questions is to help understand the purpose and intent of a question within a competency-based multiple-choice exam. More specifically, the plan is to guide the exam candidate towards the correct answer; to see what the questions look like on an exam; and how to work through the rationale for the correct answer.

CETP Speech-Language Pathology Practice Test

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Question 1A

Paul is a 28-month-old child with a developmental delay. His parents report that he has a few words but uses them infrequently and does not appear interested in conversation or reciprocal play. They also state that he understands simple language accompanied by gestures.

What would an informal assessment of Paul’s expressive communication involve?

1. collecting a language sample of at least 50 one-word utterances

2. modifying a board or card game to observe turn-taking skills

3. structuring routine events to observe commenting and requesting

4. using a barrier game to increase the motivation to communicate

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because Paul does not have an expressive vocabulary of 50 words.
2 is incorrect because board and card games are not developmentally appropriate for a child Paul’s age.
4 is incorrect because barrier games would not motivate a child Paul’s age and are not developmentally appropriate.

References

Paul, R., Norbury, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.242

You are correct!

In preschool children, it is best practice to observe a child in a familiar environment with routine events. Also, commenting and requesting are early-developing communication functions.

References

Paul, R., Norbury, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.242

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Question 2

(continued from Question 1) Paul is a 28-month-old child with a developmental delay. His parents report that he has a few words but uses them infrequently and does not appear interested in conversation or reciprocal play. They also state that he understands simple language accompanied by gestures.

What should an assessment of Paul’s receptive language evaluate?

1. two-step commands and questions about the immediate environment

2. prepositions, common words and adjectives of colour and size

3. early routines, one-word commands and number concepts up to three

4. games and routines, one-word commands, simple phrases and words

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because two-step commands and questions are not expected at this developmental stage.
2 is incorrect because adjectives of colour and size are not expected at this developmental stage.
3 is incorrect because concepts up to three are not expected at this developmental stage.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.246-47

You are correct!

These skills are appropriate for Paul’s developmental level.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.246-47

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Question 3

(continued from Question 2) Paul is a 28-month-old child with a developmental delay. His parents report that he has a few words but uses them infrequently and does not appear interested in conversation or reciprocal play. They also state that he understands simple language accompanied by gestures.

In the event that Paul does not cooperate with standardized receptive language testing, what would be the best alternative?

1. estimate receptive language by observing parent-child interactions

2. use parent report to establish receptive knowledge of each test item

3. incorporate receptive probes into naturalistic play activities

4. arrange the environment to elicit specific communicative functions

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because it is not the best alternative. It does not provide the child with the best opportunities to demonstrate a variety of receptive language skills.
2 is incorrect because parental reports of receptive language are not very reliable at this age.
4 is incorrect because communicative functions are not a measure of receptive language.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.246

You are correct!

The combination of naturalistic settings and receptive language probes is the best way to measure receptive language skills for a child of this age. It can also be administered directly by the clinician.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.246

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Question 4

(continued from Question 3) Paul is a 28-month-old child with a developmental delay. His parents report that he has a few words but uses them infrequently and does not appear interested in conversation or reciprocal play. They also state that he understands simple language accompanied by gestures.

What should be considered when choosing words for initial vocabulary training?

1. Nouns, modifiers, verbs and adverbs should be taught simultaneously.

2. Words with VC structure are easier than those with CV structure.

3. Word-initial phonemes should be in the child’s phonetic inventory.

4. Verbs are easier to learn than noun referents.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because modifiers and adverbs are not in Paul’s zone of proximal development.
2 is incorrect because words with CV structure are easier to produce than words with VC structure.
4 is incorrect because noun referents are easier to learn than verbs.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p. 264-65

You are correct!

Choosing targets within the child’s phonetic inventory will increase the likelihood of success.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p. 264-65

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Question 5

What does phonological awareness training facilitate?

1. semantic development

2. grapheme production

3. sound production

4. print decoding

You are incorrect.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p. 264-65

You are correct!

Choosing targets within the child’s phonetic inventory will increase the likelihood of success.

References

Paul, R., Norburn, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p. 264-65

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Question 6

What is true of speech breathing when compared to life breathing?

1. Abdominal muscle activity is passive during exhalation.

2. The volume of air inhaled per cycle is 10% of vital capacity.

3. The time ratio of inhalation to exhalation is 10% to 90%.

4. Inhalation and exhalation are under reflexive control.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because abdominal muscle activity is active during speech.
2 is incorrect because the inhalation volume varies depending on the speaking task.
4 is incorrect for speech breathing.

References

Ferrand, C. (2014). Speech Science: An Integrated Approach to Theory and Clinical Practice. 3rd Ed. Pearson. Page 247.

You are correct!

Vocal folds adduct during speech breathing, creating an obstacle to the flow of expired air. This makes the expiratory phase longer.

References

Ferrand, C. (2014). Speech Science: An Integrated Approach to Theory and Clinical Practice. 3rd Ed. Pearson. Page 247.

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Question 7

Which motor speech characteristic(s) would be expected in a patient with a cerebellar lesion?

1. excess and equal stress

2. harsh vocal quality

3. increased rate of speech

4. consistent articulation errors

You are incorrect.

This characteristic is not a main feature of ataxic dysarthria.

References

Yorkston, K. M., Beukelman, D. R., Strand, E. A. , and Hakel. M. (2010). Management of Motor Speech Disorders in Children and Adults. 3rd Ed Pro-Ed. pg. 89.

You are correct!

Excess and equal stress is most expected in a patient with ataxic dysarthria.

References

Yorkston, K. M., Beukelman, D. R., Strand, E. A. , and Hakel. M. (2010). Management of Motor Speech Disorders in Children and Adults. 3rd Ed Pro-Ed. pg. 89.

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Question 8

In Wernicke’s aphasia, where is the lesion commonly found?

1. posterior superior region of the left parietal lobe

2. posterior inferior region of the left temporal lobe

3. posterior superior region of the left temporal lobe

4. posterior inferior region of the left parietal lobe

You are incorrect.

This anatomical region is not the location of Wernicke’s area.

References

Brookshire, RH. (2015). Introduction to Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 8th Ed Elsevier. p. 191

Papathanasiou I., and Coppens, P. (2017). Aphasia and Related Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 2nd Ed Jones and Bartlett Learning. p. 46

You are correct!

This anatomical region is the location of Wernicke’s area.

References

Brookshire, RH. (2015). Introduction to Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 8th Ed Elsevier. p. 191

Papathanasiou I., and Coppens, P. (2017). Aphasia and Related Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 2nd Ed Jones and Bartlett Learning. p. 46

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Question 9

What is one of the main goals of Supported Conversation for Adults With Aphasia?

1. Allow the adult with aphasia to demonstrate their nonverbal skills.

2. Help the adult with aphasia to reveal their communicative competence.

3. Encourage the communication partner to practice nonverbal skills.

4. Allow the communication partner to reveal their communicative competence

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because Supported Conversation for Adults With Aphasia encourages the use of nonverbal skills to assist with communication, but the goal is to participate in conversation.
3 is incorrect because Supported Conversation for Adults With Aphasia encourages the use of nonverbal skills to assist with communication, but the goal is to facilitate conversation.
4 is incorrect because Supported Conversation for Adults With Aphasia is for the adult with aphasia to reveal his/her communicative competence, not the communication partner.

References

Brookshire, RH. (2015). Introduction to Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 8th Ed Elsevier. p. 246

You are correct!

Helping an adult with aphasia to reveal their communicative competence is the primary goal of this approach.

References

Brookshire, RH. (2015). Introduction to Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 8th Ed Elsevier. p. 246

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Question 10

What co-existing impairment are children with severe phonological disorders most likely to have?

1. language disorder

2. hearing loss

3. intellectual disability

4. fluency disorder

You are incorrect.

This co-morbidity occurs less frequently than language disorders.

References

Rvachew, S. (2018). Developmental phonological disorders: foundations of clinical practice (F. Brosseau-Lapré (Ed.); 2nd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc. p. 375

Bauman-Waengler, J. (2020). Articulation & Phonology in Speech Sound Disorders: A Clinical Focus 6th Ed. Pearson. p. 146

You are correct!

Research has demonstrated that language disorders most frequently accompany phonological disorders.

References

Rvachew, S. (2018). Developmental phonological disorders: foundations of clinical practice (F. Brosseau-Lapré (Ed.); 2nd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc. p. 375

Bauman-Waengler, J. (2020). Articulation & Phonology in Speech Sound Disorders: A Clinical Focus 6th Ed. Pearson. p. 146

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Question 11

A parent disagrees that his 5-year-old child has severe language deficits, contrary to the results of a recent comprehensive formal assessment. What is this parent exhibiting?

1. a normal response in the grieving process

2. a conversion reaction

3. an extreme reaction to the associated loss

4. optimism associated with the process of coping

You are incorrect.

This characteristic is unrelated to the normal grieving process.

References

Luterman, D. (2008) Counselling Persons With Communication Disorders and Their Families. 5th Ed. Pro-Ed. Page 53

You are correct!

The first stage of the grieving process is denial.

References

Luterman, D. (2008) Counselling Persons With Communication Disorders and Their Families. 5th Ed. Pro-Ed. Page 53

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Question 12

What type of dysarthria is characterized by hypophonia, monotonous voice, breathiness, short rushes of speech and imprecise consonants?

1. hyperkinetic

2. ataxic

3. hypokinetic

4. flaccid

You are incorrect.

This symptom is not consistent with the other types of dysarthria.

References

Yorkston, K. M., Beukelman, D. R., Strand, E. A. , and Hakel. M. (2010). Management of Motor Speech Disorders in Children and Adults. 3rd Ed Pro-Ed. pg. 300-302.

You are correct!

Hallmark features of hypokinetic dysarthria include hypophonia, monotonous voice, breathiness, short speech rushes, and imprecise consonants.

References

Yorkston, K. M., Beukelman, D. R., Strand, E. A. , and Hakel. M. (2010). Management of Motor Speech Disorders in Children and Adults. 3rd Ed Pro-Ed. pg. 300-302.

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Question 13

What should the S-LP’s short-term goal be for a client presenting with hard glottal attacks?

1. Promote normal tonicity of the laryngeal muscles.

2. Improve control of the inspiratory phase of the breathing cycle.

3. Facilitate a change in pitch.

4. Increase the glottal resistance.

You are incorrect.

2 & 3 are incorrect because inspiration and pitch are not strongly associated with glottal attacks.
4 is incorrect because increased glottal resistance is associated with increased glottal tension; it will have the opposite effect.

References

Stemple, J., Nelson, R., and Klaben, BK. (2020). Clinical Voice Pathology: Theory and Management. 6th Ed Plural Publishing. p. 266-267.

You are correct!

Hard glottal attacks are associated with increased tonicity of the vocal folds and surrounding musculature. Therefore, therapy should target reducing and normalizing laryngeal tension.

References

Stemple, J., Nelson, R., and Klaben, BK. (2020). Clinical Voice Pathology: Theory and Management. 6th Ed Plural Publishing. p. 266-267.

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Question 14

For which condition would an S-LP be most likely to consider a picture-based electronic communication system?

1. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

2. brainstem stroke

3. severe aphasia

4. myasthenia gravis

You are incorrect.

In this diagnosis, reading and writing are likely to be preserved.

References

Beukelman, D., and Mirenda, P. (2013) Augmentative & Alternative Communication: Supporting Children & Adults with Complex Communication Needs. 4th Ed. Paul H Brookes Publishing Co., pages 194-195.

You are correct!

In severe aphasia, reading and writing are likely to be affected, and a picture-based system would be most appropriate.

References

Beukelman, D., and Mirenda, P. (2013) Augmentative & Alternative Communication: Supporting Children & Adults with Complex Communication Needs. 4th Ed. Paul H Brookes Publishing Co., pages 194-195.

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Question 15

Why is cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) thought to be helpful in the treatment of persons who stutter?

1. Patterns of negative thinking are explored and challenged.

2. Neural circuits in the brain are enhanced to change behaviour.

3. The person who stutters takes on the role of a fluent speaker.

4. Clients identify their skills and learn to apply them to stuttering.

You are incorrect.

This does not target the feelings and attitudes of people who stutter toward communication and speaking abilities, which is the target of CBT.

References

Guitar, B., & McCauley, R. (2010). Treatment of Stuttering: Established and Emerging Interventions. Wolters Kluwer: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. p. 189-190

Amster, B. J., & Klein, E. R. (Eds.). (2018). More than fluency: the social, emotional, and cognitive dimensions of stuttering. Plural Publishing, Inc., p.85

You are correct!

CBT targets attitudes towards communication and speaking abilities. CBT contributes to the maintenance of improved fluency.

References

Guitar, B., & McCauley, R. (2010). Treatment of Stuttering: Established and Emerging Interventions. Wolters Kluwer: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. p. 189-190

Amster, B. J., & Klein, E. R. (Eds.). (2018). More than fluency: the social, emotional, and cognitive dimensions of stuttering. Plural Publishing, Inc., p.85

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Question 16

For which type of swallowing impairment would the Mendelsohn manoeuver be used?

1. incomplete glottal closure

2. reduced tongue strength

3. delayed pharyngeal swallow

4. deduced hyolaryngeal excursion

You are incorrect.

The Mendelsohn manoeuvre does not target vocal fold closure, tongue strength, or pharyngeal sensation.

References

Groher, M. E. and M. A. Cary (2020). Dysphagia: Clinical Management in Adults and Children. 3rd Ed Elsevier. pg. 227

You are correct!

The Mendelsohn manoeuvre is designed to increase the range and duration of hyolaryngeal elevation, with a resultant increase in the range and duration of pharyngoesophageal segment opening.

References

Groher, M. E. and M. A. Cary (2020). Dysphagia: Clinical Management in Adults and Children. 3rd Ed Elsevier. pg. 227

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Question 17

What is the best measure of success for an intervention designed to establish the correct production of a particular sound in conversation?

1. an increase in the percentage of consonants correct (PCC) in conversation

2. an improvement in ratings of conversational speech intelligibility

3. evidence of correct production of untrained sounds in conversation

4. evidence of generalization of the trained sound to conversation

You are incorrect.

This measures speech accuracy overall and does not measure progress with a particular sound.

References

Rvachew, S. (2018). Developmental phonological disorders: foundations of clinical practice (F. Brosseau-Lapré (Ed.); 2nd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc., p.432

You are correct!

This is the only option that measures generalization of a particular sound.

You are incorrect.

This measures speech accuracy overall and does not measure progress with a particular sound.

References

Rvachew, S. (2018). Developmental phonological disorders: foundations of clinical practice (F. Brosseau-Lapré (Ed.); 2nd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc., p.432

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Question 18

General treatment goals for individuals with mild dysarthria include:

1. improving intelligibility and increasing loudness.

2. maximizing speech naturalness and communication efficiency.

3. reducing hypernasality and improving phoneme production.

4. increasing diadochokinetic rates and improving production of initial consonant clusters.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because a person with mild dysarthria should have good intelligibility, and this would not constitute a general treatment goal.

3 & 4 are incorrect because there is insufficient information regarding the specific dysarthria type, and the question pertains to a general treatment goal.

References

Yorkton & Beukelman, 2010, p.276

You are correct!

A person with mild dysarthria would benefit from normalizing speech function.

References

Yorkton & Beukelman, 2010, p.276

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Question 19

What would be an appropriate goal for a school-age child with a word-finding disorder?

1. Increase expressive vocabulary.

2. Increase semantic associations.

3. Enhance literacy.

4. Improve conversational skills.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because the goal of increasing vocabulary does not address the underlying issue: word retrieval.
3 is incorrect because enhancing literacy skills does not improve word-retrieval, although the inverse may be true.
4 is incorrect because improving conversational skills does not address the underlying issue: word retrieval.

References

Paul, R., Norbury, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.518

You are correct!

Semantic association is a strategy for improving word retrieval. By expanding and deepening students’ knowledge of word meanings, the connections among words in students’ semantic networks are strengthened.

References

Paul, R., Norbury, C., & Gosse, C. (2018). Language Disorders from Infancy Through Adolescence: Listening, Reading, Writing and Communication. 5th Ed Elsevier. p.518

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Question 20

What therapy approach is beneficial for individuals with global aphasia?

1. semantic priming procedures

2. stimulation of access to syntactic structures

3. teaching symbolic gestures

4. lexical facilitation via phonemic cueing

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because an individual with global aphasia would not be able to effectively use semantically related words to either derive the meaning of the target word or name the target word.
2 is incorrect because verbal output in an individual with global aphasia is still limited and would not be at a level that uses syntactic structure.
4 is incorrect because word retrieval in an individual with global aphasia is too impaired to benefit from phonemic cueing.

References

Brookshire, RH. (2015). Introduction to Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 8th Ed Elsevier. p.218

You are correct!

Initial therapy goals in an individual with global aphasia need to target simple, basic communication.

References

Brookshire, RH. (2015). Introduction to Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 8th Ed Elsevier. p.218

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Question 21

What is considered best practice when obtaining informed consent for a client who speaks a different language than the S-LP?

1. Have an interpreter present the information.

2. Have a family member provide translation.

3. Use a co-worker who speaks the client’s language.

4. Present written information in the client’s language.

You are incorrect.

2 & 3 are incorrect because this would only be used in exceptional circumstances.
4 is incorrect because it is insufficient for informed consent. Providing written information only does not allow the client to ask questions and therefore does not constitute informed consent.

References

Lubinski, R., Golper, L., Frattali, C. (2007). Professional Issues in Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology. 3rd Ed. Thomson Delmar Learning. Page 45

You are correct!

This is best practice. The use of an interpreter ensures that the information is presented in an unbiased way by someone who is professionally trained and knowledgeable about the structure and content of that language.

References

Lubinski, R., Golper, L., Frattali, C. (2007). Professional Issues in Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology. 3rd Ed. Thomson Delmar Learning. Page 45

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Question 22

Jacob, age 6 months, has been recently fitted with hearing aids following a diagnosis of sensorineural hearing loss. Which factor is the most important in determining his prognosis for oral language development?

1. the age when first words appear

2. the type of hearing aid prescribed

3. the age of amplification

4. family involvement

You are incorrect.

Although relevant, it is not the primary prognostic indicator for children with sensorineural hearing loss.

References

Katz, J. (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology. 7th Ed. Wolters Kluwer. Page 459

You are correct!

Age of amplification is the best predictor of oral language development.

References

Katz, J. (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology. 7th Ed. Wolters Kluwer. Page 459

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Question 23

An S-LP’s client, Rowena, is in the same kindergarten class as the S-LP’s daughter. At a birthday party, Rowena’s parent asks the S-LP about how Rowena’s therapy is progressing. How should the S-LP respond?

1. Suggest to the parent that they focus on the birthday festivities.

2. Ask the parent for her perspective about Rowena’s progress.

3. Offer to review the treatment plan and progress at the next session.

4. Take the parent aside in a quiet room away from the children and provide an update.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because it doesn’t address the parent’s concerns.
2 & 4 are incorrect because they increase the risk of a breach of confidentiality.

References

Paul, R., Schoen Simmons, E. (2021). Clinical Methods in Communication Disorders. 4th Ed. Paul H Brookes Publishing Co. Page 188.

You are correct!

This addresses the parent’s concerns while maintaining professional boundaries and confidentiality.

References

Paul, R., Schoen Simmons, E. (2021). Clinical Methods in Communication Disorders. 4th Ed. Paul H Brookes Publishing Co. Page 188.

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Question 24

Sreejani is an S-LP working in an outpatient rehab clinic. She prioritizes new S-LP referrals according to a triage guideline. Sreejani’s manager, Tony, tells her that his mother-in-law has just been referred and asks Sreejani to assign the referral high priority. What should Sreejani do?

1. Talk to the senior manager about Tony’s request.

2. Follow Tony’s direction to assign the referral a high priority.

3. Review the triage protocol with Tony and prioritize the referral accordingly.

4. Ask Tony to have the referring physician resubmit the referral, marking it as urgent.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because the first course of action is always to address the issue directly with the person involved.
2 & 4 are incorrect because they give Tony an unfair advantage and constitute unethical practice.

References

Lubinski, R., Golper, L., Frattali, C. (2007) Professional Issues in Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology. 3rd Ed. Thomson Delmar Learning. Page 89 and 439.

You are correct!

As a regulated health professional, the S-LP must practice ethically. This includes addressing the issue with the person in question and following triage guidelines.

References

Lubinski, R., Golper, L., Frattali, C. (2007) Professional Issues in Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology. 3rd Ed. Thomson Delmar Learning. Page 89 and 439.

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Question 25

Patty, an S-LP, has a friend who is receiving fluency treatment from Patty’s colleague in the same clinic. Her friend told Patty she thinks the therapy activities are “silly” and is considering withdrawing from treatment. What should Patty do to address her friend’s concerns?

1. Share her friend’s concerns with her colleague.

2. Discuss her friend’s concerns with her manager.

3. Suggest her friend discuss the treatment plan with the S-LP.

4. Encourage her friend to request a second opinion from a different S-LP at the clinic.

You are incorrect.

1 & 2 are incorrect because sharing her friend’s concerns with another team member would be a breach of confidentiality and doesn’t promote self-advocacy.
4 is incorrect because the first course of action is to address the issue with the S-LP providing treatment.

References

Lubinski, R., Golper, L. A. C., Frattali, C. M. (2007). Professional Issues in Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology 3rd Ed. Thomson Delmar-Learning. p. 439, 538

You are correct!

This would be the most professional approach to promoting her friend’s self-advocacy.

References

Lubinski, R., Golper, L. A. C., Frattali, C. M. (2007). Professional Issues in Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology 3rd Ed. Thomson Delmar-Learning. p. 439, 538

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Question 26

Jeremy is an S-LP on the school board and operates a private practice during the summer. What is the best way Jeremy could market his private practice to attract new clients?

1. Post advertisements in community association newsletters.

2. Leave marketing materials in school staff rooms when he is there.

3. Ask his school S-LP colleagues to distribute brochures to their clients.

4. Share information about his private practice with clients’ parents who ask about extra services.

You are incorrect.

There is a clear conflict of interest. This places the S-LP at a clear advantage because of the direct connection to the school.

References

Paul, R. and Schoen Simmons, E. (2021). Introduction to Clinical Methods in Communication Disorders. (4th Ed). Paul H Brooks Publishing Co., pages 33, 56.

You are correct!

Posting advertisements in association newsletters is equally available to all S-LPs in the community. A conflict of interest is a tension between a person's private interests and their official responsibilities in a position of trust. This is the least likely option for the S-LP to create a conflict of interest.

References

Paul, R. and Schoen Simmons, E. (2021). Introduction to Clinical Methods in Communication Disorders. (4th Ed). Paul H Brooks Publishing Co., pages 33, 56.

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Question 27

An S-LP in a rehabilitation centre wants to start an aphasia group to enhance individual S-LP treatment, but the manager is not supportive of group therapy. What should be the S-LP’s first course of action?

1. Approach her manager’s superior to request approval to run a group.

2. Offer to pilot an aphasia group at the centre on her own time after work.

3. Review literature on efficacy of group therapy and share with the manager.

4. Assist patients and their families to start a petition asking for group aphasia services.

You are incorrect.

1, 2, & 4 are incorrect because they do not demonstrate evidence-informed practice. There is also greater potential to create conflict and undermine the manager.

References

Paul, R. and Simmons, ES. (2021). Introduction to Clinical Methods in Communication Disorders 4th Ed. p. 66

Papathanasiou, I. and Coppens, P. (2017) Aphasia and Related Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 2nd Ed. Bartlett Learning, p. 319.

You are correct!

Evidence-informed practice is a core element of client-centred care. The S-LP's role is to inform other staff about established and emerging literature.

References

Paul, R. and Simmons, ES. (2021). Introduction to Clinical Methods in Communication Disorders 4th Ed. p. 66

Papathanasiou, I. and Coppens, P. (2017) Aphasia and Related Neurogenic Communication Disorders. 2nd Ed. Bartlett Learning, p. 319.

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Question 28

To test cranial nerve V function, what could the S-LP ask the client to do?

1. smile

2. pucker lips

3. open mouth

4. protrude tongue

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because cranial nerve VII controls lip movements.
2 is incorrect because cranial nerve VII controls lip movements.
4 is incorrect because cranial nerve XII controls tongue movements.

References

Freed, D. B. (2020) Motor Speech Disorders: Diagnosis and Treatment. 3rd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc., p.102

You are correct!

Cranial nerve V controls jaw opening.

References

Freed, D. B. (2020) Motor Speech Disorders: Diagnosis and Treatment. 3rd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc., p.102

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Question 29

Rachel is a long-term care resident with identified thin liquid dysphagia. A nurse referred her to the S-LP for significant weight loss and dehydration. What is the first recommendation for the S-LP to make?

1. Refer to a dietitian.

2. Refer to a physician.

3. Recommend calorie count.

4. Recommend thickened supplements.

You are incorrect.

2 is incorrect because, although it may be an appropriate course of action, the immediate priority is for the dietitian to complete a thorough assessment.
3 is incorrect because recommending calorie count is beyond the scope of the S-LP’s practice.
4 is incorrect because recommending supplements is beyond the scope of the S-LP’s practice.

References

Leonard & Kendall, 2019, p. 245

You are correct!

The core responsibility of a dietitian is to assess nutrition and hydration, and they are the most appropriate people to address this issue.

References

Leonard & Kendall, 2019, p. 245

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Question 30

For an individual with velopharyngeal dysfunction, which vowel sound would be perceived as most nasal?

1. /a/

2. /æ/

3. /ʌ/

4. /i/

You are incorrect.

This is a low vowel, which consistently has less nasal resonance.

References

Kummer, A. W. (2020). Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Conditions: A Comprehensive Guide to Clinical Management 4th Ed. Jones & Bartlett Learning. p. 304

You are correct!

/i/ is a high vowel, which consistently has more nasal resonance and more oral impedance than a low vowel.

References

Kummer, A. W. (2020). Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Conditions: A Comprehensive Guide to Clinical Management 4th Ed. Jones & Bartlett Learning. p. 304

Your score is

The average score is 66%

CETP Audiology Practice Test

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Question 1

Mrs Bailey, an 85-year-old, has bilateral, moderately severe sensorineural hearing loss with good word-recognition scores (84%). Mrs Bailey is cognitively alert, with good vision, but has limited manual dexterity due to arthritis. She was recently fitted with advanced behind-the-ear (BTE) hearing aids, which she uses consistently. She was also given a wireless accessory.

Mrs Bailey has recently moved into a large intermediate care facility. The facility is equipped with a television and a networked phone system that are compatible with wireless technology.

After three weeks, Mrs Bailey’s adult children are frustrated that she is not using the wireless accessories with the television and phone. Mrs Bailey says she cannot hear well through the devices. A listening check reveals that the hearing aids and accessories are working well. A hearing retest indicates there is no change in hearing.

What is the audiologist’s best next step?

1. Ask Mrs. Bailey to demonstrate her use of hearing aids and the accessories.

2. Re-evaluate the hearing aids and accessories through verification assessments.

3. Ask Mrs. Bailey to complete a hearing handicap questionnaire.

4. Advise her family it can take several months for older adults to get used to new devices.

You are incorrect.

2 is incorrect because the hearing aids and accessories have already been assessed and found to be working correctly.
3 is incorrect because a hearing handicap questionnaire does not assess the correct use of the technology.
4 is incorrect because this is not client-centred care and it does not solve the problem or investigate the solution; It simply uses stereotypes to avoid investigating the problem and developing a solution.

References

Dillon, H. (2012). Hearing Aids (2nd Ed.). Thieme Publishers. p. 393.

Taylor, B. (2022). Relationship-Centered Consultation Skills for Audiologists: Remote and In-Person Care. Plural Publishing. p. 41.

You are correct!

Checking the client’s ability to manipulate the technology appropriately is the next step in troubleshooting the issue, after confirming that the technology itself is working correctly.

References

Dillon, H. (2012). Hearing Aids (2nd Ed.). Thieme Publishers. p. 393.

Taylor, B. (2022). Relationship-Centered Consultation Skills for Audiologists: Remote and In-Person Care. Plural Publishing. p. 41.

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Question 2

(continued from Question 2) Mrs Bailey, an 85-year-old, has bilateral, moderately severe sensorineural hearing loss with good word-recognition scores (84%). Mrs Bailey is cognitively alert, with good vision, but has limited manual dexterity due to arthritis. She was recently fitted with advanced behind-the-ear (BTE) hearing aids, which she uses consistently. She was also given a wireless accessory.

Mrs Bailey has recently moved into a large intermediate care facility. The facility is equipped with a television and a networked phone system that are compatible with wireless technology.

After three months, Mrs Bailey is successfully using her devices to watch television and talk on the phone. However, she is having significant difficulty hearing in the dining room. Which of the following would provide the best estimation of Mrs Bailey’s functioning in challenging listening environments?

1. Word Recognition Score (WRS)

2. Speech Reception Threshold (SRT)

3. a hearing handicap questionnaire

4. Hearing In Noise Test (HINT)

You are incorrect.

1 & 2 are incorrect because they assess the ability to identify individual words in a quiet environment.
3 is incorrect because a hearing handicap questionnaire is not a measurement of listening in noise.

References

Gelfand, S.A., & Calandruccio, L. (2022). Essentials of Audiology 5th Ed. Thieme Publishers. p. 246.

You are correct!

The HINT is the only validated test listed that functionally tests listening to running speech in noise.

References

Gelfand, S.A., & Calandruccio, L. (2022). Essentials of Audiology 5th Ed. Thieme Publishers. p. 246.

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Question 3

What is dosimetry used to determine?

1. a worker’s occupational noise exposure

2. noise levels at a particular worksite

3. attenuation of a Hearing Protection Device (HPD)

4. the peak noise level of a particular piece of equipment

You are incorrect.

2 is incorrect because a sound level meter would be used to measure noise levels at a worksite.
3 is incorrect because dosimetry does not measure HPD attenuation.
4 is incorrect because dosimetry measures the noise exposure for a person, and not a piece of equipment.

References

Fligor, B., Chasin, M., & Neitzal, R. (2015). Noise exposure. In Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M.,

Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.), Handbook of clinical audiology (pp. 595-596) (Vol. 7). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

This is the measure to determine an individual’s noise exposure over a specific time period.

References

Fligor, B., Chasin, M., & Neitzal, R. (2015). Noise exposure. In Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M.,

Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.), Handbook of clinical audiology (pp. 595-596) (Vol. 7). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

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Question 4

Tympanometry for a 7-year-old child reveals a flat tympanogram with an equivalent ear canal volume of 0.2 millitres (ml). What does this suggest?

1. tympanic membrane perforation

2. excessive cerumen

3. serous otitis media

4. eustachian tube dysfunction

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because this condition would result in a large ear canal volume measure.
3 is incorrect because this condition would result in a normal ear canal volume measure.
4 is incorrect because this condition would result in a normal ear canal volume measure and negative middle ear pressure.

References

Kramer, S. & Brown, D.K. (2023). Audiology. Science to Practice 4th Ed. San Diego: Plural Publishing. p. 239

You are correct!

A relatively small ear canal volume is consistent with ear canal obstruction.

References

Kramer, S. & Brown, D.K. (2023). Audiology. Science to Practice 4th Ed. San Diego: Plural Publishing. p. 239

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Question 5

Immittance results within normal limits and absent acoustic reflexes would be indicative of which of the following?

1. otosclerosis

2. ossicular discontinuity

3. otitis media with effusion

4. tympanic membrane perforation

You are incorrect.

2 is incorrect because this condition would result in tympanometric high static compliance.
3 is incorrect because this condition would result in a flat tympanogram.
4 is incorrect because this condition would result in a flat tympanogram with larger-than-normal ear canal volume.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.). (2015). Handbook of clinical audiology (Vol. 7). (p. 498) Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

Otosclerosis presents with a normal tympanogram because the malleus and incus have normal mobility, the stapes is fixed, preventing the measurement of acoustic reflexes.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.). (2015). Handbook of clinical audiology (Vol. 7). (p. 498) Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

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Question 6

Which of the following descriptive statistical measures corresponds to the middle of a distribution?

1. percentile

2. mean

3. standard deviation

4. median

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because a percentile describes how a score compares to other scores in the same set.
2 is incorrect because the mean is the average of the statistical measure.
3 is incorrect because the standard deviation measures how dispersed the data are around the mean.

References

Owen, A. (2023). Statistics for Clinicians. Springer. p. 7.

You are correct!

The median denotes the middle of a distribution.

References

Owen, A. (2023). Statistics for Clinicians. Springer. p. 7.

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Question 7

By what age should newborn hearing screening be completed?

1. one month

2. three months

3. four months

4. six months

You are incorrect.

2 is incorrect because three months is the goal for diagnostic assessment for most EHDI protocols.
3 & 4 are incorrect because screening at this age would delay diagnosis and intervention, per EHDI protocols.

References

White, K. A. (2015). Newborn hearing screening. In Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., and Tillery, K. L. (Eds.), Handbook of clinical audiology (p. 441) (Vol. 7). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

Early screening leads to early diagnostics, as per most early hearing detection and intervention (EHDI) protocols.

References

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Question 8

Hearing thresholds are collected using insert earphones. Based on these results, what is the most likely pathology?

1. semicircular canal dehiscence

2. collapsed ear canal

3. otitis media

4. endolymphatic hydrops

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because semicircular canal dehiscence typically produces a low-frequency conductive component.
2 is incorrect because testing was performed using insert earphones, eliminating the possibility of a collapsed ear canal.
4 is incorrect because endolymphatic hydrops typically results in sensorineural hearing loss.

References

Schlauch, R. S., & Nelson, P. (2015). Puretone Evaluation. In Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.), Handbook of Clinical Audiology (p. 43) (Vol. 7). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

Otitis media is the only condition among the options that would result in conductive hearing loss across all frequencies.

References

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Question 9

What language skill would be emerging in a typically developing 8-month-old?

1. pointing to body parts

2. producing canonical babble

3. producing single words

4. producing several vowel sounds

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because the age of emergence for this language skill is 18 months.
3 is incorrect because the age of emergence of this language skill is one year.
4 is incorrect because this language skill emerges at two months.

References

Tharpe, A.M., & Seewald, R. (Eds.). (2016). Comprehensive Handbook of Pediatric Audiology. Plural Publishing. p. 919

You are correct!

Canonical babbling emerges at approximately eight months.

References

Tharpe, A.M., & Seewald, R. (Eds.). (2016). Comprehensive Handbook of Pediatric Audiology. Plural Publishing. p. 919

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Question 10

Aubrey is a 4-year-old child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). She has tactile defensive behaviour and misophonia. How should the audiologist begin the evaluation?

1. otoscopy

2. tympanometry

3. otoacoustic emissions

4. soundfield audiometry

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because a child with tactile defensive behaviour may react negatively to being touched.
2 is incorrect because a child with tactile defensive behaviour and misophonia may react negatively to the probe tone and to the pressure change involved with tympanometry.
3 is incorrect because a child with tactile defensive behaviour may react negatively to the otoacoustic emissions stimuli and to being touched.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.). (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology (Vol. 7). (p. 586) Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

Soundfield measures do not require touching the child.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.). (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology (Vol. 7). (p. 586) Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

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Question 11

What is the effect of a low-pass filter with a 2000 Hz cut-off?

1. It will reject signals at 2000 Hz.

2. It will reject signals above 2000 Hz.

3. It will pass signals at 2000 Hz.

4. It will pass signals above 2000 Hz.

You are incorrect.

This does not have the properties of a low-pass filter with a 2000 Hz cutoff.

References

Burkhard, R., & Don, M. (2015). Introduction to Auditory Potentials.

In Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.), Handbook of Clinical Audiology (p. 195) (Vol. 7). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

A 2000 Hz low-pass filter passes all frequencies below the cutoff frequency and rejects all frequencies above it.

References

Burkhard, R., & Don, M. (2015). Introduction to Auditory Potentials.

In Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.), Handbook of Clinical Audiology (p. 195) (Vol. 7). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

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Question 12

When performing real-ear measures (REM), an audiologist obtains a real-ear aided response (REAR) that is lower in the high frequencies than expected; the REAR meets targets at other frequencies. Which of the following is most likely to cause this finding?

1. a pinched probe tube

2. a shallow placement of the probe tube

3. a probe tube clogged with cerumen

4. leak created by the probe tube

You are incorrect.

1 & 3 are incorrect because a pinched probe tube and a clogged probe tube will both result in reduced gain measurements across all frequencies.
4 is incorrect because a leak would dissipate low frequencies.

References

Mueller, H.G., Ricketts, T.A., & Bentler, R. (2017). Speech Mapping and Probe Microphone Measurements. Plural Publishing. p. 248

You are correct!

Shallow placement of the probe tube allows high frequencies to dissipate.

References

Mueller, H.G., Ricketts, T.A., & Bentler, R. (2017). Speech Mapping and Probe Microphone Measurements. Plural Publishing. p. 248

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Question 13

Which procedure best evaluates the function of the saccule and the inferior vestibular nerve?

1. videonystagmography

2. vestibular evoked myogenic potential

3. rotary chair testing

4. posturography

You are incorrect.

1 & 3 are incorrect because they evaluate only the horizontal semicircular canal.
4 is incorrect because it is a functional balance test that assesses somatosensory, visual, vestibular, and motor function to maintain balance.

References

McCaslin, D. L., & Jacobson, G., P. (2020). Vestibular-evoked Myogenic Potentials (VEMPs).

Jacobson, G. P., Shepard, N. T., Barin, K., Janky, K., & McCaslin, D. L. (Eds.), (2020) Balance Function Assessment and Management 3rd Ed. (p. 433). Plural Publishing.

You are correct!

It is the only test that evaluates the structures identified in the stem.

References

McCaslin, D. L., & Jacobson, G., P. (2020). Vestibular-evoked Myogenic Potentials (VEMPs).

Jacobson, G. P., Shepard, N. T., Barin, K., Janky, K., & McCaslin, D. L. (Eds.), (2020) Balance Function Assessment and Management 3rd Ed. (p. 433). Plural Publishing.

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Question 14

How often should real-ear-to-coupler differences (RECDs) be repeated in young children to ensure optimal hearing aid benefit?

1. once per year

2. twice per year

3. with every earmold change

4. with every tubing change

You are incorrect.

1 & 2 are incorrect because they are not often enough to capture the acoustic changes that occur in young children’s ears as they grow.
4 is incorrect because the RECD accounts for the acoustic properties of the ear canal itself and is not significantly influenced by earmold tubing effects.

References

Madell, J., & Flexer, C. (2014). Pediatric Audiology: Diagnosis, Technology, and Management (2nd ed., p. 215). Thieme Medical Publishers, New York.

You are correct!

The anatomy of the external and middle ears changes frequently in young children, requiring new earmolds to fit the ear. Measuring the RECD when a new earmold is fit ensures that these changes are taken into account for the hearing aid output.

References

Madell, J., & Flexer, C. (2014). Pediatric Audiology: Diagnosis, Technology, and Management (2nd ed., p. 215). Thieme Medical Publishers, New York.

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Question 15

The screening program at a local hospital reports that it correctly identified 95% of infants with hearing loss in the previous year. Which test characteristic does this refer to?

1. positive predictive value

2. sensitivity

3. overall agreement

4. specificity

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because positive predictive value refers to the percentage of true positives for the test (i.e. the level of confidence one has in the true-positive outcome).
3 is incorrect because overall agreement is not a statistical term.
4 is incorrect because specificity refers to how well the test correctly identifies those without the target disorder (proportion of true negatives).

References

Owen, A. (2023). Statistics for Clinicians. Springer.

You are correct!

Sensitivity refers to the ability of the screening program to correctly identify children with hearing loss.

References

Owen, A. (2023). Statistics for Clinicians. Springer.

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Question 16

Mr Leblanc has new completely-in-the-canal (CIC) hearing aids. At his 4-week check-up, he reports that the hearing aids fall out when he chews. What is the audiologist’s best next step?

1. Change the hearing aid to a receiver-in-the-canal (RIC) hearing aid.

2. Remake the hearing aid as an in-the-canal (ITC) hearing aid.

3. Take a new impression of the hearing aid and send it for remake.

4. Assess temporomandibular joint function.

You are incorrect.

1 & 2 are incorrect because the clinician has not attempted to solve the problem with the client’s current hearing aids. A change in style would not be an initial solution.
4 is incorrect because it falls outside an audiologist's scope of practice.

References

Taylor, B., & Mueller, H. G. (2021). All About Style: Hearing Aids and Earmolds. (p.251). Fitting and dispensing hearing aids, 3rd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc.

You are correct!

A new impression is needed to ensure optimal fit.

References

Taylor, B., & Mueller, H. G. (2021). All About Style: Hearing Aids and Earmolds. (p.251). Fitting and dispensing hearing aids, 3rd Ed. Plural Publishing, Inc.

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Question 17

What is a small opening that allows cochlear perilymph to leak into the middle ear?

1. otoconia

2. cholesteatoma

3. fistula

4. scala

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because otoconia are calcium carbonate crystals in the saccule and utricle.
2 is incorrect because a cholesteatoma is a skin growth or cyst that forms behind the tympanic membrane and can progress into the middle ear.
4 is incorrect because scala are the fluid-filled cavities of the inner ear.

References

Gelfand, S. A. & Calandruccio, L. (2023). Auditory system and related disorders. (p.167). Essentials of Audiology, 5th Ed. Thieme.

You are correct!

A perilymph fistula is a hole or tear in the area between the middle and inner ear that can allow perilymph to leak into the middle ear.

References

Gelfand, S. A. & Calandruccio, L. (2023). Auditory system and related disorders. (p.167). Essentials of Audiology, 5th Ed. Thieme.

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Question 18

Which of the following syndromes is most commonly associated with congenital hearing loss?

1. Apert

2. Fragile X

3. Marfan

4. Waardenburg

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because hearing loss associated with Apert syndrome is typically due to acquired conductive hearing loss (i.e. middle ear effusion).
2 & 3 are incorrect because Fragile X and Marfan are not typically associated with congenital hearing loss.

References

Northern, J.L., & Downs, M.P. (2002). Hearing in Children. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins

You are correct!

The incidence of congenital hearing loss in Waardenburg syndrome is ~70%.

References

Northern, J.L., & Downs, M.P. (2002). Hearing in Children. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins

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Question 19

Which area of the tympanic membrane is usually affected first by a cholesteatoma?

1. oval window

2. round window

3. pars flaccida

4. pars tensa

You are incorrect.

1 & 2 are incorrect because they are not part of the tympanic membrane and would only be involved in the late stages of the disorder.
4 is incorrect because it is the area opposite to the pars flaccida, and it is less likely to be retracted.

References

Gelfand, S. A. & Calandruccio, L. (2023). Auditory system and related disorders. (p.157). Essentials of Audiology, 5th Ed. Thieme.

You are correct!

This is the area of the tympanic membrane that contains a higher proportion of elastin and is the most frequently retracted area of the tympanic membrane.

References

Gelfand, S. A. & Calandruccio, L. (2023). Auditory system and related disorders. (p.157). Essentials of Audiology, 5th Ed. Thieme.

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Question 20

When performing otoscopy, the audiologist observes bubbles behind the eardrum. What are the most likely results?

1. flat tympanogram with a conductive hearing loss in the high frequencies

2. flat tympanogram with a conductive hearing loss in the low frequencies

3. normal tympanogram with conductive hearing loss at all frequencies

4. normal tympanogram with a conductive hearing loss in the high frequencies

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because middle ear effusion does not typically result in high-frequency hearing loss.
3 & 4 are incorrect because bubbles are a likely sign of fluid in the middle ear, and this is not typically associated with a normal tympanogram.

References

Gelfand, S. A. & Calandruccio, L. (2023). Auditory system and related disorders. (p.152). Essentials of Audiology, 5th Ed. Thieme.

You are correct!

Bubbles are a likely sign of fluid in the middle ear, which usually results in a flat tympanogram, as this condition increases impedance and decreases energy transmission. This is a mass-dominated condition, which results in low-frequency hearing loss.

References

Gelfand, S. A. & Calandruccio, L. (2023). Auditory system and related disorders. (p.152). Essentials of Audiology, 5th Ed. Thieme.

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Question 21

Mrs Roberts presents with the following results:

• Type B tympanograms bilaterally
• pure tone thresholds revealing a bilateral moderate conductive hearing loss
• excellent word recognition at elevated listening levels bilaterally

What is the audiologist’s best next step in management of this client?

1. prescribe receiver-in-the-canal (RIC) hearing aids

2. refer for a bone anchored hearing system (BAHS) candidacy assessment

3. recommend follow-up with the family physician for medical investigation.

4. retest in two years to monitor hearing thresholds

You are incorrect.

1 & 2 are incorrect because the client has a potentially treatable medical condition.
4 is incorrect because it is not a timely intervention.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K.M., Hood, L.J., & Tillery, K.L. (7th Ed) (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

The logical next step after identifying middle ear pathology is to refer to a physician.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K.M., Hood, L.J., & Tillery, K.L. (7th Ed) (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

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Question 22

Marc has a moderate bilateral hearing loss. He uses behind-the-ear (BTE) hearing aids with direct streaming capability from his mobile phone. He reports struggling to hear the caller due to excessive environmental noise. What is the audiologist’s best next step?

1. Increase the gain in the default listening program.

2. Reduce the microphone input in the hearing aid streaming program.

3. Counsel Marc to increase the volume on his mobile phone.

4. Counsel Marc to use his speakerphone.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because increasing the gain in the default listening program will increase all inputs.
3 is incorrect because increasing the gain on his mobile phone involves a secondary step, and it does not reduce environmental noise input.
4 is incorrect because it does not reduce environmental noise, and it would result in others hearing his conversations.

References

Ricketts, T. (2019). Essentials of modern hearing aids : selection, fitting, and verification (R. A. Bentler & H. G. Mueller (Eds.)). Plural Publishing. pg 575

You are correct!

This will improve the signal-to-noise ratio by decreasing environmental noise input.

References

Ricketts, T. (2019). Essentials of modern hearing aids : selection, fitting, and verification (R. A. Bentler & H. G. Mueller (Eds.)). Plural Publishing. pg 575

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Question 23

A client in good health was accompanied to a hearing clinic by their adult daughter, but declined having their daughter in the room during the assessment. The client accepted the audiologist’s recommendation for a trial with advanced technology hearing aids.

The next day, the client’s daughter phones the audiologist to change the order to the least expensive hearing aids, instead of the advanced technology. The daughter requests that the audiologist not inform the client that she has called the clinic.

What are the audiologist’s best next steps?

1. Change the hearing aid order to the entry-level technology, as requested by the daughter.

2. Advise the client of the daughter’s phone call and ask if the client needs to discuss the trial with their family.

3. Inform the daughter that the audiologist cannot discuss this with her without the client’s consent.

4. Cancel the hearing aid order and schedule an appointment to review the recommendations with the client and their daughter.

You are incorrect.

1 & 4 are incorrect because the client has not provided consent for these changes, and they do not respect the client's autonomy.
2 is incorrect because it is not the clinician’s responsibility to discuss the conversation between the client and the client’s daughter.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016)

You are correct!

Client consent is required to share information or to make changes to the intervention plan. It is also the audiologist's ethical responsibility to safeguard the client's autonomy.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016)

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Question 24

An audiologist has recently fit an 80-year-old client with binaural hearing aids. The client lives with their adult son, who accompanies them to all appointments. At the follow-up visit, the client is struggling to insert the hearing aids and reports not having worn them.

The son raises his voice and berates his parent. The client keeps their eyes downcast during the appointment and flinches when their son comes near to help with the hearing aids.

What is the audiologist’s best next step?

1. Recommend that the son attend anger management classes.

2. Ask to speak to the son separately about his interaction with his parent.

3. Counsel the client in private and discuss the concerning behaviour of their son.

4. Document the interaction, making note to watch for abuse at future appointments.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because recommending anger management classes is outside our scope of practice and may escalate the son’s behaviour.
2 is incorrect because the client is the parent, not the son. The audiologist does not have the client’s consent to talk to the son about the client’s care without the client present.
4 is incorrect because the audiologist suspects that abuse is taking place, and they are not taking immediate steps to ensure the client’s safety.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016). pages 3-5.

You are correct!

Opening the conversation to evaluate whether abuse should be reported ensures that the audiologist is acting in accordance with the professional code of ethics, and this option respects the client's autonomy.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016). pages 3-5.

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Question 25

An audiologist sees a 7-year-old child with moderate hearing loss who has worn hearing aids for many years. The parent reports that the teacher is not wearing the remote microphone system transmitter. The parent asks the audiologist what can be done regarding the remote microphone system.

What is the audiologist’s best response?

1. Suggest that the child sit at the front of the classroom.

2. Contact the teacher and offer an in-service on remote microphone technology.

3. Write a letter of complaint to the school board with a copy to the parent and the principal.

4. Provide the parent with a brochure regarding remote microphone technology to give to the teacher.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because this may not improve the signal-to-noise ratio enough, and it does not address the use of remote microphone technology.
3 is incorrect because it does not allow the teacher the opportunity to address the concern before escalating to a higher level of administration in the education system.
4 is incorrect because this option does not advocate for the client and family. Passing out information is not the best option in this case.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.). (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology (Vol. 7). (p. 508) Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

You are correct!

Audiologists have a role in collaboration. An in-service supports the client’s needs and can better motivate the teacher to use the remote microphone system.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K. M., Hood, L. J., & Tillery, K. L. (Eds.). (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology (Vol. 7). (p. 508) Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health.

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Question 26

An audiologist has seen a 3-year-old over several assessments over the course of a year that have demonstrated moderate conductive hearing loss and flat tympanograms. The latest assessment shows the same results. The parents ask what can be done to help their child.

What is the audiologist’s best next step?

1. Refer for communication support.

2. Explain ear anatomy and physiology.

3. Request an expedited referral to an otolaryngologist.

4. Inform the parent that middle ear issues can improve over time.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because it does not address the cause of the hearing loss.
2 is incorrect because explaining the anatomy and physiology will help counsel the parents, but it does not address the long-standing medical condition, which is outside of the scope of practice of an audiologist.
4 is incorrect because the child’s middle ear issues have not resolved over time.

References

Musiek, F. E., Shinn, J. B., Baran, J. A., & Jones, R. O. (2020). Disorders of the auditory system. (pp. 127-139) Plural Publishing.

You are correct!

The child needs medical management above all other interventions, given the length of time with the same results.

References

Musiek, F. E., Shinn, J. B., Baran, J. A., & Jones, R. O. (2020). Disorders of the auditory system. (pp. 127-139) Plural Publishing.

27 / 30

Question 27

What is the audiologist’s first step prior to taking an ear impression?

1. Inspect the ear canal.

2. Prepare the equipment.

3. Insert the otoblock.

4. Obtain informed consent.

You are incorrect.

While this is part of the ear impression-taking procedure, you cannot proceed without consent.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016). Page 4

You are correct!

Informed consent is a prerequisite for performing any procedure.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016). Page 4

28 / 30

Question 28

An audiologist has new auditory brainstem response (ABR) equipment on trial. The manufacturer offers the audiologist a weekend pass to a local ski hill.

What is the audiologist’s best response?

1. Request that the pass be exchanged for a summer event.

2. Use the pass after the equipment trial period has ended.

3. Thank the manufacturer for their offer and decline the pass.

4. Accept the pass and give it to a family member or friend.

You are incorrect.

This involves the audiologist accepting a gift, which violates professional ethical codes.

References

SAC Code of Ethics. (2016). page 6.

You are correct!

As per professional codes of ethics, a clinician must not accept any financial reward or gift that may compromise or influence professional judgment or service recommendation.

References

SAC Code of Ethics. (2016). page 6.

29 / 30

Question 29

An audiologist is conducting an Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR) test. During test set-up, the audiologist determines that the impedances are all equally high.

What is the audiologist’s best next step to bring down the impedances?

1. Restart the ABR equipment.

2. Replace the negative electrodes.

3. Rescrub areas for all electrodes.

4. Rescrub the area for the ground electrode.

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because it will not change the impedance measurements.
2 & 3 are incorrect because they will bring the impedance down only for the negative electrodes.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K.M., Hood, L.J., & Tillery, K.L. (7th Ed) (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health. pg. 256

You are correct!

The ground electrode serves as the reference for all other electrodes. Rescrubbing this area will help bring down the impedance for all electrodes.

References

Katz, J., Chasin, M., English, K.M., Hood, L.J., & Tillery, K.L. (7th Ed) (2015). Handbook of Clinical Audiology. Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer Health. pg. 256

30 / 30

Question 30

Which one of the following is most appropriate to use for translation when providing services if the audiologist and client do not speak the same language?

1. online translation application

2. clinic administrative staff

3. friends or family member

4. professional interpreter

You are incorrect.

1 is incorrect because online translation applications may compromise the accuracy of the information.
2 is incorrect because the clinic administrative staff are not trained to adhere to interpreting standards, and confidentiality may be compromised.
3 is incorrect because the clinic administrative staff are not trained to adhere to interpreting standards, confidentiality may be compromised, and they may also introduce bias.

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016)

You are correct!

The primary reason to use a professional interpreter is that they have training to interpret medical information accurately

References

SAC Code of Ethics (2016)

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Last modified:
2026-08-20

CETP Exams Practice Questions

Question 1A

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Question 4

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Question 8

Question 9

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Question 11

Question 12

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Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30

Question 1

Question 2

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Question 4

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Question 6

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Question 15

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Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30

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